ANDHRAPRADESH: August 2010

UPSC Civil Services (Prelim) Exam, 2010 Result Announced

Civil Services (Prelim) Exam, 2010 Result Announced

The Union Service Public Commission (UPSC) has announced the result of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2010 held on May 23, 2010. The successful candidates have qualified for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination 2010.
The candidature of these candidates is provisional. In accordance with the Rules of the Examination, all these candidates have to apply again in the detailed application form, which is available on the UPSC website i.e. www.upsc.gov.in. from where it can be downloaded and sent to the Commission duly filled in by the candidate in own handwriting, for admission to the Main Examination scheduled to be held from October 29, 2010. A copy of Detailed Application Form (DAF) shall also be sent by Post to the successful candidates by the Commission.
In case any of the successful candidates does not receive a communication in this regard from the Commission by September 08, 2010, he/she should immediately contact the Commission.

The result of Roll Nos. 256401, 275422, 340989, 551300, 551460, 548579, 275875, 288037 and 402112, has been withheld.
UPSC have a Facilitation Centre near Examination Hall Building in its Campus. Candidates may obtain any information/clarification during working hours in person or over telephone No.011-23385271, 011-23381125 and 011-23098543. The result is available on PIB website i.e www.pib.nic.in and also on the UPSC website i.e. www.upsc.gov.in.

The Roll Nos. of the successful candidates are as under:

Click here to see roll number list

Courtesy: PIB

(Current Affairs) Dialogue India: National - Major Issues 01 to 10 August 2010

National - Social/Political (Major Issues)

Reprocessing accord signed

India and the U.S. on Friday evening signed the much-debated agreement on modalities for reprocessing spent nuclear fuel, under the civilian nuclear deal between the two countries.
The agreement on arrangements and procedures for reprocessing was signed at a State Department ceremony by Indian ambassador Meera Shankar and U.S. Under Secretary of State for Political Affairs William Burns.
Pursuant to Article 6(iii) of the bilateral ‘123 Agreement' on civilian nuclear cooperation, the agreement was hailed by the Indian embassy here as “a significant step which highlights the strong relationship and growing cooperation between India and the U.S.” Upon entry into force, it will enable reprocessing by India of United States-obligated nuclear material under International Atomic Energy Agency safeguards.
The State Department in a statement said that as per the agreement reprocessing would be undertaken at a new, safeguarded national facility to be established by India, and that it would be dedicated solely to this.
Speaking on the occasion, Ms. Shankar congratulated negotiators on both sides on bringing the agreement to completion well ahead of the stipulated period of one year. “This early completion in some sense reflects how our two countries are increasingly getting into the habit of working together,” she said.
She reiterated that the government of India had an ambitious programme for development of civil nuclear energy to meet the country's growing energy needs, noting that the target was “to increase our installed capacity more than seven fold to 35,000 MWe by the year 2022, and to 60,000 MWe by 2032.”
In this context, the government had already designated two sites for nuclear power plants to be established in cooperation with the U.S. and the companies of the two countries were now engaged in discussions, Ms. Shankar noted.
The State Department corroborated this commitment on the U.S. side, noting that the reprocessing arrangement, negotiated and concluded under President Obama, reflected the administration's “strong commitment to building successfully on the landmark U.S.-India Civil Nuclear Cooperation Initiative.” It was also a prerequisite for U.S. nuclear fuel suppliers to conduct business with India, a spokesperson noted.
Officials also sought to underscore the rarity of such agreements between the U.S. and other nations, emphasising that on previous occasions, the U.S. had extended reprocessing consent only to the European Union and Japan.
Hinting at some of the key factors driving this agreement on the U.S. side, the State Department spokesman said that the Civil Nuclear Cooperation Initiative had facilitated “significant new commercial opportunities across India's multi-billion dollar nuclear energy market, including the designation of two nuclear reactor park sites for U.S. technology in the States of Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat.”

Jaipur's Jantar Mantar inscribed in the World Heritage List

The Jantar Mantar in Jaipur is now a World Heritage Monument. The 34th session of the World Heritage Committee, presently underway in Brasilia, has inscribed Jantar Mantar in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation's World Heritage List. Thirty-three countries across the world had submitted 32 sites for consideration this year.
The Jantar Mantar in Jaipur was chosen since ‘it is the most significant and the best preserved of India's historic observatories.'
The UNESCO website observes that these structures ‘designed for the observation of astronomical positions with the naked eye, embody several architectural and instrumental innovations.'
Located outside the city palace, this large stone observatory with its many instruments was built by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II in the 18th century. It is one of the one of the four existing astronomical observatories in India. The others are located in Varanasi, Delhi and Ujjain. The fifth one built in Mathura is not extant. The Samrat Yantra in Jaipur is one of the largest sundials in the world, with its gnomon raising about 73 feet above its base.
India had also submitted the Matheran Light Railway line for consideration as an extension of the Mountain Railways of India, which includes the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, Nilgiri railway and Kalka-Shimla Railway that are already inscribed as heritage sites.
The other international sites added to the list this year include, 11 Australian convict sites, the palace ensemble at ad-Dir'iyah in Saudi Arabia, Tabriz historic bazaar complex in Iran and the natural site of the Central Highlands in Sri Lanka.
Every year the World Heritage committee reviews sites proposed by various countries and inscribes the selected new ones to the heritage list. It also reviews the state of conservation of the sites already inscribed. So far, about 890 properties are included in the list for their “outstanding universal value.” The committee also oversees the disbursement of about $4 million annually from the World Heritage Fund.

Courtesy: Dialogue India & Career Plus

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(Paper) State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)

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State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -1

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B) 14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

(Paper) State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)

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State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

SET -1

SET -2

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)

23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)

SET -3

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)

37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

SET -4

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.

‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.

After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’

The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)

(Paper) Bank Probationary Officer (PO) Practice Papers (General Awareness)

DOWNLOAD ALL THE QUESTIONS HERE

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by

2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

(Toppers Talk) Be your real self to crack UPSC : Shashank Sethi (48th Rank, UPSC-2009)

Academic excellence could be the key to cracking prelims and mains of UPSC examination but interview scans and checks the real person lying within. This was the observation of 48th rank holder in the all-India merit list of UPSC-2009 Shashank Sethi of Ranchi.
Sethi is currently on a brief visit to his home here after he was allocated the IAS cadre. He will join the foundation course in August end.
Sethi, who graduated from IIT, Kharagpur, had chosen two papers from humanities for the mains. "I used to study about 6-7 hours every day. At times, my study schedule varied," he said, adding that since both the subjects he had chosen were new and the topics related to day-to-day affairs, it was merely his keen interest in the subjects that even long hours of study never took a toll on him.

http://upscportal.com/civilservices/images/upsc.JPG

Sethi did his schooling from DAV Hehal in 2000 and completed Plus Two from Rajhans Vidyalaya, Mumbai. Later, he cracked the IIT joint entrance examination and studied aerospace engineering. He passed out from IIT, Kharagpur, in 2006.
"Initially, I joined Schlumberger, a multinational oil company for a brief period of two years. However, I realized a vacuum in my life which prompted me to take the civil services examination so that I could do something for the society," he said.
Sethi started preparing for the civil services while he was still in job and was successful enough to crack all the three stages of the examination in one go.

Courtesy: Timesofindia.indiatimes.com

ICET 2010 WEB COUNSELLING,INSTRUCTIONS,RANKS DISTRIBUTION,DOWNLOADS

Candidates can exercise options from Dt: 21/08/2010.

DOWNLOAD MANUAL OPTION ENTRY FORM

Counseling Procedure ::

- ADMISSIONS
WEB COUNSELING PROCEDURE

I	PREAMBLE
	The A.P. State Council of Higher Education is conducting admission of Candidates into MBA & MCA Courses who passed Degree or its Equivalent and qualified in ICET (Common Entrance Examination).
II	RATIONALE FOR WEB COUNSELING
	The process of inviting the qualified candidates of ICET and allotting a seat as per their option is known as Counseling. Till last year candidate used to attend in any one of the 8 Counseling Centres for securing a seat in MBA & MCA courses. In this process candidates have to travel all the way to report at any one of the counseling centres more than once and it is also a time consuming process.
III	WHAT IS WEB COUNSELING
	For the Convenience of the Candidates from the academic year 2009-10, Government has decided to adopt a total web based counseling procedure where a candidate can exercise options i.e. candidate can select a college and course which he/she intends to study, through internet centre or internet facility available at his/her residence and where access to such facility is not available, from any one of the help line centers established by Govt in the districts. Such help line centers will be availble in each district.
IV	STAGES OF WEB COUNSELING
	1. *Issue of Notification:* The A.P. State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE) issues a notification, in prominent news papers indicating the date wise ranks of the candidates who have to attend for Registration, Verification of Certificates and Schedule for Exercising options and APSCHE will also notify the list of Help-line Centres. Candidates who fail to report for registration and Certificates verification will not be considered for allotment of seats in any of the colleges.

	2. *Certificate Verification:* Candidates should produce the following certificates a) Hall ticket b) Rank c) SSC/ Inter / Degree or Equivalent marks memo d) Study/Bonafide Certificate from IX to Degree e) Caste Certificate of SC/ST/BC/Minorities (if applicable) f) Income Certificate issued by MRO issued after 01.01.2010should also be submitted (in case the candidate desires to claim fee exemption). g) PH/NCC/CAP/Sports and Games Certificates (if applicable) h) Transfer Certificate. Candidates will be issued a receipt of Certificates at Help-line Centres after Verification.

	3. *Exercising Options:* After Certificate Verification in Help-line Centres, a Blank Option Form (speciman), List of colleges with the courses offered by them and course codes will be given to all the Candidates. Based on the Course Codes and college Codes, Candidates may list out college in order of preference, the courses which they intend to give options for. For the reference of the candidates , the last rank up to which candidates were admitted in different colleges /courses in the previous academic year would be made availble to candidates on the web site. The candidate should first prepare a priority number with a list of courses in the blank option form before he/she attempts to enter the options on the web. Candidates can exercise any number of options. After the finalising the options, he is advised to take print out of the final option form for his/her record. Help-Line Centres shall demonstrate the detailed procedure of Exercising Options immediately after the certificate verification.

	4. *Modification of Options and Freezing:* Candidate can change his/her options any number of times during the allotted time. After allotted time for option entry, If the Candidate is not satisfied with the Options exercised, he/she can modify the options on the dates notified by the authority and this is final opportunity for exercising options.

	5. *Final Allotments of Seats:* Based on the options excercised, seat allotment will be made as per merit rank and category (SC/ST/BC/PH/NCC/CAP/Sports and games quota etc ) of the candidate. The final Allotments will be placed on the Web on the scheduled date announced before hand and the Candidates will have to down load the allotment order from the web site.

	6. *Payment of Fees & and Reporting at College:* Candidates, with downloaded allotment order, have to remit the fee in one of the designated banks and obtain a receipt. After that candidate with allotment order and Fee receipts have to report at the respective colleges where the Seat is allotted on or before the dates specified in the allotment order. If Candidate fails to report for admission at the allotted college by the dates stipulated, the allotment stands cancelled and candidate will have no claim for further allotment of seats.

List of Districts & Codes::::

District Name	District Code	Region
Adilabad	ADB	OU
Anantapur	ATP	SVU
Chittoor	CTR	SVU
East Godavari	EG	AU
Guntur	GTR	AU
Hyderabad	HYD	OU
Kadapa	KDP	SVU
Karimnagar	KRM	OU
Khammam	KHM	OU
Krishna	KRI	AU
Kurnool	KNL	SVU
Mahabubnagar	MBN	OU
Medak	MED	OU
Nalgonda	NLG	OU
Nellore	NLR	SVU
Nizamabad	NZB	OU
Prakasam	PKS	AU
Rangareddy	RR	OU
Srikakulam	SKL	AU
Visakhapatnam	VSP	AU
Vizianagaram	VZM	AU
Warangal	WGL	OU
West Godavari	WG	AU

Minority Name	Minority Code
Christian	CHR
Kannada	LMK
Marati	LMM
Muslim	MUS
NA	NA
Sikh	SIKH

Other Codes
Andhra Region	AU
Osmania Region	OU
Sri Venkateswara Region	SVU
State Wide	SW
Self Finance	SF
Not Applicable	NA
Co-Education	COED

List of Courses:::

Course code	Course Name
MBA	Master of Business Administration
MCA	Master of Computer Applications
MBF	MBA (Financial Management)
MHR	MBA (Human Resource)
MMM	MBA (Media Management)
MRM	MBA (Retail Management)
MTM	MBA (Technology Management)
MBT	MBA (Tourism Management)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:::

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Every Candidate intending to join Postgraduate programmes in Computer Applications and Business Administration through web based counseling is required to go through the following stages. Several Help Line Centres (HLCs) are designated to conduct the various activities of web based counseling. Every candidate shall report at any one of the HLCs convenient for him for verification of his/her original certificates. Stage–1: Candidate Registration for Certificate verification at HLCs:
 Wait for the announcement from authorities of Help Line Centres for Registration.
 After announcement, hand over the rank card to the officer at entrance.
 Wait for your turn in the registration hall.
 When your rank is called pay Processing Fee and obtain receipt.
 Collect the Registration-Cum-Verification form from computer operator at Registration counter.
 Enter details i.e. hall ticket number, rank etc. in the Register kept within the counter and append your signature.
 Your registration is completed. Go back and wait in the registration hall for announcement.
 After announcement by the officer at Registration counter, report at Verification counter for certificate verification.
STAGE 2: Verification of Certificates:
 Verify the details printed on Registration-Cum-Verification form for name, local area, sex, category, date of birth etc. for correctness.
 If there is any mistake, report to verification officer for correction.
 If you belong to SC/ST/BC Category, report to Caste Verification officer and submit the original Caste Certificate for verification and clearance. After Caste verification report to one of the Certificate verification officers, the officer will verify certificates like Rank Card, Hall ticket, Marks memo, Study certificate, income certificate etc. for verification.
 If you belong to OC Category, directly report to Certificate verification officer.
 The Officers will verify all the original certificates given by you.
 A Print out of Receipt of certificates will be given to you and if you find any discrepancy report to the Chief Verification Officer for correction. Append your signature after verifying the data printed on the Receipt of Certificates. (You are responsible for the Correctness of data. No request for alteration of data will be entertained once the options are entered). All the Original certificates will be retained with Chief Verification Officer.
 Proceed to the Briefing Hall to take instructions on exercising options.
Page 2 of 7
STAGE 3: Instructions on arriving at Options:
 All the Colleges, courses, districts are given codes.
 Go through the Information provided to know about the Colleges, Courses offered and other details. This helps you to Prepare List of Options in the order of Preference.
 Exercising options means you have to select Colleges and courses you wish to join and arrange them in the order of priority. The Officer in Briefing Hall will demonstrate and explain the procedure of exercising options and filling of Manual option form. Collect the manual option form. They can also be downloaded from the Home page of http://apicet.nic.in.
STAGE 4: Preparatory work to be made at home for exercising options: Consult your parents/friends on the selection of courses and Colleges you wish to join. Enter the district code, college code and course code against the option(preference) number in the manual option form.
An example is given below:
Option number
District code
College code
Course code
1
HYD
JNTHSF
MCA
2
VSP
AUCB
MBA
3
VSP
AUCBSF
MRM
4
CTR
SVUC
MCA
You can give any number of options as per your choice. The allotment process reads the choices as per the option number and allots a seat as per the availability of vacancy in that college and course. Do not write the options for which you are not interested to join. Exercise as many number of options as possible to avoid disappointment of not getting a seat. All candidates can exercise their options for minority colleges also. However, Allotment to them will be made subject to availability of vacant seats after exhausting eligible concerned minority candidates. It is advised to prepare the list of options in the manual option form supplied before entering the options on web.
STAGE 5: Procedure to be followed for exercising options on Web
1. You can exercise the options on web from your home or from any internet café or from any Help Line Center with the help of filled in manual option form already available with you.
2. If you are unable to enter the options on the web by yourself, you can take the assistance of Computer operator at the HLCs. However, you are advised to enter the password by yourself to maintain secrecy.
Page 3 of 7
Importance of Password: Password is important and should be held confidentially. Do not reveal it to anybody as it might enable modification/tampering of your data.
Password is essential for Login, Change of options and for printing of allotment order.
You can change your password if you know the previous password. If you forget the password, you need to approach the Camp Officer of nearest Help Line Centre with your identification proof for generation of New password.
The Convenor is not responsible for any misuse of the password by the Candidate or by others.
Steps to be followed for entering the options on web:
1. You must have already completed the process of certificate verification at any one of HLCs.
2. Choose a computer that contains Windows operating system (except earlier versions of Windows98) and loaded with Internet Explorer version 6.0 to 8.0 browser. Browsers such as Netscape Navigator, Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome will not support this web application.
3. Please type URL or Website address: http://apicet.nic.in or as indicated in the notification and press Enter.
4. The home page contains the information regarding Web Counseling (in the left panel) and “Candidates Registration” to generate password and “Candidates Login” for exercising options(in the right side panel).
5. Click on „Candidate Registration‟ and enter the following details.
Registration No. ICET H.T No. Rank Date of Birth (Registration number is available on Rank Card/Receipt of Certificate) and click on “Generate Pass word”.
6. Enter Password box appears.
7. In the “Enter Password” box enter a „password‟ of your choice (having a minimum of 6 characters length with at least one Numeral, For example: BALA23, TECH27, EAMCET2, APPLE41, bala7ji, eAmCeT1 etc.,) and re-enter the same at “Re-enter password” box. Remember the type of letters used in password (Upper case or Lower case) as password is case sensitive. Enter your mobile phone number (if available) and email id(if available).
8. Click on “Save” to save the password and click on “Log Out” to complete the registration and return to home page.
9. Click on “Candidate Login” is provided for exercising the options.
10. Enter the details “Registration No., Hall Ticket No., Pass Word and Date of Birth” and click on “Sign In”.
11. Read the instructions on the screen carefully. Read the Declaration & click on Check Box √ to confirm that you have red all the instructions and then click on “Help Screen”. Screen providing explanation about different Menu items that would appear on the option entry screen.
Page 4 of 7
NOTE:
1. The Input Boxes will be displayed on the Screen for the Courses for which the Candidates are eligible. In case of any discrepancy, contact the Help Line Center for checking up the eligibility.
2. In the Option entry Screen, Different Colour Codes are employed to enable the candidate to distinguish University Colleges, Private/University Self Financed Colleges (Where tuition fee will be as par with private colleges) as well as Minority Colleges. Candidates are advised to familiarize themselves with the colour tags before entering options. Full name of college, place, can be known by clicking on the college code.
12. Read the explanation about various menu items, and then click the button “Click here to Enter Options”, it displays the screen with various districts along with check boxes the same will also be displayed if you click on “Option Entry form” in the previous screen.
13. If you select a District, College codes, course codes in that district will be displayed. If you select all districts, the details of colleges-courses in the entire state based on your eligibility will be displayed.
14. Click on „Display Option Entry form‟ displays the screen for exercising the options.
15. In the Screen, the codes of the colleges and District Code and courses offered will appear as input boxes and you need to enter your option numbers in the Input boxes. Enter your Hall Ticket Number in the check box and proceed further for option entry.
16. You are advised not to start entering options directly on the web without preparatory work at home, as you may commit mistakes.
17. While filling the option form „Click on Save Options‟ at regular intervals.
18. After completion of Option entry Click on “Logout”, it displays an alert message with three buttons “Save and Logout”, “Confirm Logout” and „Cancel Logout‟.
19. Click on „Cancel Logout‟ retains the Options Entry Form.
20. Click on “Save & Logout” button will save the options exercised up to that point of time and display the details of the options exercised.
21. Click on “Confirm Logout‟ button will retain the saved options.
22. You can take a print out of saved options and verify thoroughly.
23. After verification of the options exercised, if you wish to modify or delete options or enter some more options, repeat the steps from sl.no.8 to 22 as mentioned above.
You are informed that, you can add, modify or delete the options any number of times within the stipulated time. The options given by you for last time will be taken as your Final options and these will be frozen. If you wish to change the frozen options once again approach any one of the help line centers on any one of the dates mentioned to modify your frozen options by paying the prescribed fee. This is the final opportunity and after this no further change can be done. The Options recorded in the server after this operation will be taken for allotment of seats.
Page 5 of 7
Stage 6: Final Allotment of Seats The allotments will be processed on the date mentioned in the notification based on merit rank, local area, sex and reservation category (ies) as per rules and will be placed on the web. Download the allotment order, by clicking on Candidates Login and Enter Registration Number, Hall Ticket Number, Date of Birth and Password. This is final allotment and request for change will not be entertained. GIST OF RULES & ALLOTMENT PROCESS
a) Reservation of Seats to Various categories:
1. As per the rules in vogue, the Seats in the Convenor quota will be reserved for various categories.
i) Open Competition-50%, ST-6%, SC-15%, BC-A-7%, BC-B-10%, BC-C -1%, BC-D- 7% and BC-E-4%.
ii) 1/3 of Seats in each category will be reserved for women while the remaining 2/3 of seats are general (Both Boys & Girls are eligible).
2. In regional institutions, 85% of seats in each category are reserved for locals of that area (Depending on the location of the institute) while the remaining 15% are Un reserved. (Common to all areas). In statewide institutions 85% of seats are allocated to AU,OU,SVU regions in 42:36:22 ratio while the other 15% are un-reserved.
3. Within each of the reservation categories mentioned above, the special reservation categories are allocated seats as Physically Handicapped (PH)-3% [Visual -1%, Hearing – 1%, Orthopaedic – 1 %], NCC-1%, Sports- 0.5%, Children of Armed Personnel (CAP)-2%.
b) Allotment Process:
Based on the Options exercised by the Candidates [as recorded in the Server on the last day of the Options] Allotment of Seats will be taken up. While allotting the seats, Merit (Rank), Category, Gender and Local Area will be considered. The allotment process reads the options exercised by a candidate in order of preference at each stage. As the number of options to be exercised is not limited a candidate can give as many Number of options as possible. Hence, candidates are advised to exercise as many options and sequence them carefully. The following is the Sequence of Allotment Process in steps:
1. Allotments under open competition for all candidates in Non-Minority institutions.
2. Allotments to minority candidates in Minority institutions.
3. Allotments under open competition in Both Non-Minority & Minority institutions for the leftover minority seats and consequential vacancies. (* Hence, candidates can opt for seats in minority colleges also).
4. Allotment to special reservation category seats under open competition.
5. Allotments under open competition for leftover special category seats and consequential vacancies.
Page 6 of 7
In respect of allotments in SC/ST/BC categories, the sequence (a) to (d) will be followed in each of the steps 6 to 9 mentioned below:
a) Allotment to respective reservation category seats for concerned category candidates.
b) Allotment to respective special reservation category seats.
c) Allotment to respective category candidates for leftover special reservation category seats and consequential vacancies.
d) Conversion of leftover girl seats to boys in each of the categories.
6. Allotment to ST Category seats.
7. Allotment to SC Category seats.
8. Allotment to Open Competition for Leftover seats in ST and SC and consequential vacancies.
9. Allotments to BC category seats in the order BC-A, BC-B, BC-C, BC-D, BC-E and inter conversion of leftover seats from one category to other in cyclic order (ABCDEA).
10. Allotments to minority candidates for the minority seats vacated by minority candidates during earlier stages (6-9) of allotments.
11.Final allotment to all candidates under open competition for all the leftover seats and consequential vacancies in rank order.
Note 1: In terms of G.O.Ms.No.42, Higher Education Dept, Dated: 18.05.2009, while making allotments to the seats in various courses/categories, the first 15% of seats (Unreserved) shall be filled up following combined merit list of all eligible candidates and thereafter the remaining 85% of the seats shall be filled up by local candidates only. Note 2: If a candidate who had earlier allotted a seat under open competition moves to a better option during category (SC/ST/BC) allotment, the seat vacated will be offered to the next meritorious candidate of the same reservation category as per G.O.Rt.No. 550, Higher Education Dept. In view of this, candidates can exercise options to a college/course where there is no allocation of a seat to a particular category in the seat matrix. Note 3: The allotment process takes care of all possible reservations of a candidate (Local/Non-Local/ST/SC/BC/PH/NCC/CAP/Sports and Gender) during various stages and their merit is protected at each step. Note 4: The allotment of special reservation category seats (NCC/Sports/CAP) will be taken up in priority order and rank within each priority. Stage 7: Payment of Fees Download the challan form for payment of fee. With downloaded allotment order you have to remit the fees in one of the branches of Andhra Bank or Indian Bank in the State and obtain a receipt. All the Candidates are exempted from payment of tuition fee whose parental annual income is up to one lakh and shall claim for reimbursement of fee and such provision is subject to the orders of the Government issued from time to time. For any valid reason if the candidate does not wish to join the allotted college, candidate is advised not to pay the fee.
Page 7 of 7
Stage 8: Reporting at College: With downloaded allotment order, fee payment receipt and a set of Xerox copies of all certificates candidates shall report at the allotted Colleges within the dates mentioned by the authorities. If you fail to report on or before the date stipulated by the authorities the allotment made in favour of you will be treated as cancelled and you will have no claim further on the allotment. Even if a candidate pays the fee but is unwilling in the allotted seat, he shall not report at that college. Such cases will be treated as not reported and the allotment will be cancelled. Stage 9: Participating in Subsequent Phase(s) of Counseling (if any): If you have not participated in previous phase(s) of counseling, you can participate as a fresh candidate by attending Certificate Verification at one of the HLCs. If no seat is allotted in Previous Phase of Counseling, you can participate in subsequent phase(s) of counseling, provided you got your certificates verified at the HLC. If a seat is allotted in previous phase of counseling, and you are not interested to join in the allotted college, you should not report at the college/Pay the fee. You are entitled to participate in the Web Counseling but will be eligible to join the New College/Course and will have no claim on the Previous allotment. If you had paid the fee and/or reported at the college, you can participate in the subsequent phase(s) of Web Counseling if any. If a seat is allotted as per your option, you shall move to the new allotment and will have no claim on the previous allotment.
Stage 10: Process of Withdrawal: At the end of the Counseling process, still if you want to withdraw/cancel the allotted seat, you can do so before a stipulated cutoff date. Beyond this date, the convenor will have no say on your admission and is left to the discretion of the Principal of the institution.
CONVENOR ICET-2010 (ADMISSIONS)

DOWNLOAD THE OFICAL INSTRUCTIONS FORM

SCHEDULE FOR DECENTRALISED CERTIFICATE VERIFICATION

ICET 2009 - LAST RANK ADMITTED

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UPSC Civil Services (Prelim) Exam, 2010 Result Announced

Civil Services (Prelim) Exam, 2010 Result Announced

The Roll Nos. of the successful candidates are as under:

Click here to see roll number list

(Current Affairs) Dialogue India: National - Major Issues 01 to 10 August 2010

National - Social/Political (Major Issues)

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(Paper) State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)

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State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

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(Paper) State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper (Solved)

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

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(Paper) Bank Probationary Officer (PO) Practice Papers (General Awareness)

(Toppers Talk) Be your real self to crack UPSC : Shashank Sethi (48th Rank, UPSC-2009)

ICET 2010 WEB COUNSELLING,INSTRUCTIONS,RANKS DISTRIBUTION,DOWNLOADS